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QUESTION 509
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split-horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router.
What is the result of this command? Continue reading →

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following features allows for easier navigation of long lists on a tablet device?

A.    Pinch-zoom
B.    Multitouch
C.    Scrollbars
D.    Touch flow

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://gigaom.com/2010/03/08/touchscreen-tablets/

QUESTION 22
Which of the following file system types is used primarily for optical media?

A.    FAT32
B.    NTFS
C.    HPFS
D.    CDFS

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/c/cdfs.htm

QUESTION 23
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to transfer files?

A.    IMAP
B.    XCOPY
C.    DISKPART
D.    FDISK

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/xcopy.mspx?mfr=true

QUESTION 24
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?

A.    Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B.    Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C.    Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D.    Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way is to disable all switch ports when they are not utilized. Switch them on when you need them. This way, you can prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices in to company’s network jacks.

QUESTION 25
After installing a new printer the organization determines that there are problems printing images and very large files. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?

A.    Update the drivers using WHQL drivers
B.    Install additional memory to each computer
C.    Install additional memory to the printer
D.    Apply the latest OS service pack

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.ehow.com/how_6875286_install-printer-memory.html

QUESTION 26
Which of the following command line tools will terminate a non-system process without restarting the computer?

A.    Shutdown
B.    Kill
C.    Erase
D.    Break

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/446/xp_kill_windows_process_command_line_taskkill/

QUESTION 27
After accidentally removing a hard drive from a server with three drives in a RAID 5 configuration, a technician notices the server locks up and shuts down. Which of the following can the technician do to quickly fix the problem?

A.    Replace the RAID controller and boot.
B.    Reinsert the drive and boot.
C.    Plug the drive back in, the system will resume automatically.
D.    Remove all drives and rebuild the array.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Just reinsert the drive and boot the computer. The computer will start since it is a RAID 5 configuration.

QUESTION 28
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?

A.    Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B.    Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C.    Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D.    Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://larsjoergensen.net/windows/windows-7/how-to-clear-the-windows-update-download-cache-in-windows-7

QUESTION 29
A user reports that their wireless connectivity is being spotty. The issue seems to interrupt their wireless signal connection when the laptop screen is tilted forward or backward during operation. When this happens, the entire wireless signal drops out until the screen is left in position for a
good minute or so. Which of the following MOST likely explains what is happening?

A.    The hinges on the laptop screen are not strong enough to support the wireless signal cables.
B.    The wireless card is losing contact to its socket when the screen is opening/closing.
C.    The laptop is designed to work optimally with wireless when the screen is at a perfect 90 degree angle.
D.    The wireless signal cables are being crimped when the screen is opening/closing.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/wirelessfaqs/f/wifilaptoprange.htm

QUESTION 30
A user states that they cannot connect to the network or the Internet. The technician determines the issue is that the computer has a static IP address and needs to use DHCP to work correctly. The technician sets the NIC to automatically assign an IP address. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A.    Identify the type of network card and what Operating System the computer is running
B.    Confirm the computer is back on the network and has Internet connectivity
C.    They need to annotate what the static IP address was and inform the employee’s manager
D.    They need to determine why the NIC was assigned a static IP address

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183692(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following memory types has 184 pins?

A.    DDR3
B.    DDR
C.    SDRAM
D.    DDR2 Continue reading →

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QUESTION 271
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are a developer for Consolidated Messenger, a software company that provides applications for manager courier services. You are preparing to release a new version of the flagship application.

The application is comprised of a set of Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs), and a set of Linux-based Docker containers. The management portion of the application uses Kubernetes for management of containers.

You need to determine a mechanism to deploy the application so that customers can provision the application from the Azure Marketplace.

Solution: Provide access to an Azure Resource Manager template.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No Continue reading →

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QUESTION 161
Which configuration set enables outbound label filtering so that only peer 192.168.10.1 receives label advertisements in an MPLS environment? Continue reading →

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QUESTION 151
Which two options are true regarding the Pipe and Short Pipe MPLS tunneling models? (Choose two.)

A.    In Short Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the customer’s PHB markings
B.    In Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the service provider’s PHB markings
C.    In Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the customer’s PHB markings
D.    In Short Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the service provider’s PHB markings
E.    Short Pipe mode does not need MPLS usage, but Pipe mode does Continue reading →

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QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. IT administrators report packet loss on the critical applications coming with CoS 4. Which option is the appropriate configuration to have a lower drop probability when the packets are processed using DSCP values?

1381

A.    set ip dscp af22
B.    set ip dscp af41
C.    set ip dscp af13
D.    set ip dscp af32

Answer: B

QUESTION 139
An engineer looks at packet captures and sees that the MPLS header field of a packet indicates a bottom of stack field of 0. What can the engineer conclude from this information?

A.    The packet is an AToM packet
B.    One label is on the packet
C.    At least one more MPLS label is on the packet
D.    No labels are on the packet

Answer: C

QUESTION 140
Which option is the correct definition of the LB on a Cisco router?

A.    a table used by switching functions to forward labeled packets
B.    a table that holds the next hop for destination prefixes
C.    a label-based adjacency table
D.    a table that stores remote and local label bindings

Answer: A

QUESTION 141
Which two values must be specified in a Cisco NBAR configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    port number
B.    IP precedence
C.    neighbor discovery address
D.    CoS
E.    transport protocol

Answer: AE

QUESTION 142
An engineer is deploying CB-WRED across the entire core network to enforce the previously deployed CBWFQ and decides to change the WRED default to make it work with DSCP. Which policy-map command enables this new profile on regular Cisco IOS routers?

A.    random-detect
B.    random-detect dscp value
C.    random-detect dscp based
D.    random-detect precedence value

Answer: C

QUESTION 143
Which two protocols facilitate label bindings by neighboring routers? (Choose two.)

A.    IS-IS
B.    LDP
C.    OSPF
D.    EIGRP
E.    BGP

Answer: BE

QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer who is working for an ISP wants to override the QoS that comes from the customer. The engineer wants to set a QoS value of 5 for all traffic.
What are two reasons why the configuration is not working? (Choose two.)

1441

A.    The service-policy command should point to the service policy, not to the class map
B.    The set command should reference CoS instead of MPLS EXP bits
C.    The service-policy configuration should be set as output
D.    The policy-map configuration needs to reference class-map Custom1
E.    The number 350 in the xconnect command should appear after the encapsulation type

Answer: AD

QUESTION 145
Which two values are class-selector DSCP values? (Choose two.)

A.    001001
B.    000111
C.    111000
D.    100000
E.    000001

Answer: CD

QUESTION 146
Which IOS XR Software feature supports establishing point-to-point and point-to-multipoint TE tunnels traversing multiple IGP areas and levels allowing headend and tailend routers to reside in different areas?

A.    loose hop reoptimization
B.    FRR mode protection
C.    interarea support
D.    loose hop expansion

Answer: B

QUESTION 147
Which option describes the IPv6 flow label field?

A.    a 3-bit field used for marking a traffic flow
B.    an 8-bit field used for labeling a traffic flow
C.    a 20-bit field used to tag a traffic flow throughout the network
D.    an 8-bit field out of which the first 6 are used to classify packets

Answer: C

QUESTION 148
What is a crucial LDP default operating behavior?

A.    LDP uses the solicited mode by default. An LDP label request is sent to the FIB next hop LSR. When the egress router receives the request, it returns message with all the label-mapping information for the LSP is generated.
B.    LDP establishes a TCP session between the PE routers, thus providing label mapping for the LSP
C.    LDP uses downstream unsolicited mode by default. An LSR advertises label mappings to peers without being asked
D.    LDP uses UDP-confirmed messages to establish sessions between PE ingress and egress routers. The UDP messages encode the label information for each LSP and sub-LSP link

Answer: C

QUESTION 149
Which statement defines how MPLS LDT Graceful Restart works after a service interruption?

A.    It works independent of neighboring routers to recover MPLS forwarding information
B.    It works by helping all neighboring MPLS LDP routers to recover MPLS forwarding information
C.    It works by helping neighboring routers with MPLS LDP SSO/NSF and Graceful Restart to recover MPLS forwarding information
D.    It works independent of neighboring non-LDP Graceful Restart routers to recover MPLS forwarding
information

Answer: C

QUESTION 150
Which two factors must you consider when configuring MPLS EXP? (Choose two.)

A.    MPLS EXP marking is supported in the egress direction
B.    A packet that IP ToS classifies at ingress can be reclassified by MPLS EXP at egress
C.    MPLS EXP marking is supported in the ingress direction
D.    MPLS EXP classification for bridged MPLS packets on EVCs is supported
E.    A packet that MPLS classifies at ingress can be reclassified by IP ToS at egress

Answer: CE

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QUESTION 266
You are the system administrator for a company. All devices run Windows 10 and use a variety of Microsoft Store for Business apps. All user reports issues updating a Windows Store app.

You need to troubleshoot the issue.

Winch three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Run the SFC command.
B.    Run the repair-bde command.
C.    Run the net start wuauserv command.
D.    Run the Windows App Troubleshooter.
E.    Use the Programs and Features Control Panel applet to repair the application.

Continue reading →

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QUESTION 255
Your company uses Microsoft Office 365.

You need to ensure that users are prompted to label and classify documents while they edit documents.

Solution: You create a Microsoft Intune mobile device management (MDM) policy for mobile devices.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

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QUESTION 211
RMAN is configured to create backupset backups for your database.
You issue the command to back up the database:

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which two statements are true about the backup performed by the command?

A.    Only the used blocks in the data files are backed up.
B.    It backs up all the data files and deletes obsolete backups after the backup is complete.
C.    It backs up only those archived log files that are not backed up at least once.
D.    It backs up all the archived log files and deletes the ones that were just backed up.
E.    It backs up all archived redo log files and online log files and deletes the archived log files after the backup is complete.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
You can use BACKUP … DELETE to back up archived redo logs, data file copies, or backup sets and then delete the input files after successfully backing them up.
The BACKUP ARCHIVELOG … DELETE INPUT command deletes archived log files after they are backed up. This command eliminates the separate step of manually deleting archived redo logs.

QUESTION 212
Your database instance is abnormally terminated because of a power outage. At the next startup, from which point in the redo log does the recovery start?

A.    from the last complete checkpoint position
B.    from the beginning of the current redo log file until the instance failure
C.    from the last committed transaction
D.    from the beginning of the current redo log file to the checkpoint position
E.    from the most recent incremental checkpoint

Answer: A
Explanation:
Have a recovery time governed by the number of terminated instances, amount of redo generated in each terminated redo thread since the last checkpoint, and by user-configurable factors such as the number and size of redo log files, checkpoint frequency, and the parallel recovery setting Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/startup.htm#CNCPT005

QUESTION 213
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You use RMAN to take image copies and you update these copies incrementally every six hours. After a regular maintenance task, when you attempt to restart the instance, it halts in MOUNT state with an error indicating that one of the data files belonging to the EXAMPLE tablespace is lost.

You want to recover the data file as quickly as possible while maximizing availability for the database.

Examine the possible steps involved in the recovery process:

1. Mount the database.
2. Take the data file offline.
3. Bring the tablespace online.
4. Use the RMAN SWITCH command to switch to the image copy.
5. Recover the tablespace.
6. Open the database.
7. Use the RMAN RESTORE command to switch to the image copy.

Identify the correct sequence of the required steps.

A.    2, 6, 4, 5, 3
B.    2, 4, 5, 3, 6
C.    1, 2, 4, 6, 3
D.    1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
E.    2, 7, 5, 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 214
Examine the statements that use flashback technologies:

1. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY- MM-DD HH:MI:SS’);
2. SELECT * FROM customers AS OF SCN 123456;
3. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO BEFORE DROP;
4. FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY-MM-DD
HH:MI:SS’);
5. SELECT * FROM customers VERSIONS BETWEEM SCN 123456 AND 123999;
6. ALTER TABLE customer FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;

Which set of statements depends on the availability of relevant undo data in the undo tablespace?

A.    1,2,5
B.    1,3,6
C.    2,3,5,6
D.    3,4,5

Answer: C

QUESTION 215
Which two statements are true about RMAN duplexed backups?

A.    It is only supported for backups to tape via media management interface.
B.    It is not supported for image copies.
C.    For performing duplexed backups, the parallelism for the device must be set equal to the number of copies.
D.    Duplex backups can be performed on either disk or media, but cannot be performed on media and disk simultaneously.
E.    Duplex backups can contain only data files and control files.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 216
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database to an Oracle 12c database.

Examine the list of steps that might be used to accomplish this task:

1. Place all user-defined tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Use the RMAN convert command to convert data files to the target platform’s endian format, if required.
3. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the parameters VERSI0N=12, TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS, and FULL=Y.
4. Transport the data files for all the user-defined tablespaces.
5. Transport the export dump file to the target database.
6. Perform an import on the target database by using the full, network_link, and transportable_datafiles parameters.
7. Perform an import on the target database by using the full and transportable_datafiles parameters.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A.    1, 3, 5, 4, 2, and 7
B.    1, 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, and 7
C.    1, 2,4, and 7
D.    2, 4, 5, 6, and 7

Answer: A

QUESTION 217
You enable Flashback Data Archive for a table for which you want to track and save all transactions for four years. After some time, the requirement changes for keeping transactions from four to two years.

You execute the following command to change the requirement:
SQL> ALTER flashback archive fda1 MODIFY RETENSION 2 YEAR; What is the outcome?

A.    An error is returned because the retention period cannot be reduced.
B.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is purged from the flashback archive FDA1.
C.    All the flashback data archives are purged and the subsequently created flashback archives are maintained for two years.
D.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is archived to flashback logs and the flashback archive is set to new retention time.

Answer: B

QUESTION 218
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload and it needs to be up 24 x 7. You want to perform a complete database backup by using RMAN.

Identify the minimum requirement for accomplishing the task.

A.    An RMAN channel must be configured to device-type disk.
B.    The database must be configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C.    Redo log groups must have at least two members each.
D.    All tablespaces in the database must be locally managed.

Answer: C

QUESTION 219
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 with two pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2. You execute the following commands on CBD$ROOT as the SYS user:

SQL> CREATE USER c##scott IDENTIFIED BY scottorcll;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO c##scott user?

Which statement is true about the c##scott user?

A.    It is created in all the PDBs with the CREATE SESSION privilege.
B.    It is created in all the PDBs but has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in CDB$ROOT.
C.    It is created and has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in a PDB that is open.
D.    It is created only in CDB$ROOT and has the CREATE SESSION privilege.

Answer: C

QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true about roles in multitenant container databases (CDBs)?

A.    Local roles can be granted to local and common users.
B.    A common role can be granted only to a common user.
C.    A common user can create a local role by default in any pluggable database (PDB) that is plugged in to a CDB.
D.    A common role can be granted only system privileges.
E.    The root container can have both local and common roles.
F.    A local role can be assigned to a common role in a PDB.

Answer: AC

Reference https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-manage-users-and-privileges-for-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1

QUESTION 221
Which three conditions must be met before you Virtual Private Catalog (VPC) can be created and used by an Administrator?

A.    A base recovery catalog must exist.
B.    The owner of the VPC cannot own recovery catalog.
C.    At least one target database should be registered in the recovery catalog.
D.    The REGISTER DATABASE privilege should be granted to the virtual catalog owner.
E.    The DBA role must be granted to the virtual catalog owner.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 222
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. Complete database backups are performed daily at midnight. A user accidentally truncates an important table at 10 AM after the last backup. After that, a few important transactions are performed on the database.

Which two best methods for recovering the truncated table data?

A.    Table Point-in-Time Recovery
B.    Database Point-in-Time Recovery
C.    Tablespace Point-in-Time Recovery
D.    Flashback Database
E.    Flashback Transaction Backout

Answer: BD

Reference https://blogs.oracle.com/sql/how-to-recover-data-without-a-backup

QUESTION 223
You issue the RMAN command:

RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users;

Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A.    The resulting backupset has backup pieces that cannot exceed 300 MB.
B.    RMAN uses multiplexing to perform the backup.
C.    RMAN always performs this type of backup in parallel.
D.    The backup succeeds only if the USERS tablespace is locally managed.
E.    The backup set size is limited to 300 MB.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmbckad.htm#BRADV89546

QUESTION 224
Which two statements are true about encrypted backups performed by using RMAN?

A.    Transparent encryption of backups uses an encryption wallet.
B.    A database uses the same encryption key for every encrypted backup.
C.    A password encryption of backups uses the password while creating and restoring backups.
D.    Image copy backups can be created by using password encryption.
E.    Encrypted backups can only be written to disk.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14191/rcmbackp.htm#BRADV007

QUESTION 225
Your multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 has two pluggable databases, PDB1 and PDB2. The local net service name CDB1 connects to the root database, and the service names PDB1 and PDB2 connect to the pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2, respectively.

Examine the commands to change the value of the PDB modifiable initialization parameter:

$> sqlplus sys/oracle_4U@pdb1 AS SYSDBA
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines=FALSE SCOPE=BOTH; SQL>CONN sys/oracle_4U@pdb2 AS SYSDBA
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines= TRUE SCOPE = BOTH; SQL> CONN sys/oracle _4U@cdbl AS SYSDBA
SQL.>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baseline=TRUE SCOPE=BOTH;

Which statement is true about the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter?

A.    It gives an error because it cannot be set for the root database.
B.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and the pluggable database PDB2, because values can be set for this parameter at the PDB level in a PDB.
C.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, because the value set at the root level has higher precedence.
D.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, but is effective only when the CDB is restarted and the PDBs are reopened.

Answer: B

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