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QUESTION 21
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A.    provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C.    has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D.    uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E.    uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation Continue reading →

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network communication is depicted? Continue reading →

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.) Continue reading →

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 41
You have a server named Serverl that is hosted in an Azure virtual machine.
Server1 contains the following:

– One instance of SQL Server 2016 Enterprise
– 10 databases
– 500 stored procedures

You have a database named Databasel that is hosted on Server1.
Database1 contains 100 queries that are executed dynamically from web applications.
You plan to remove data from the procedure cache on Database1.
You have the following requirements:

– Changes to Database1 must not affect other databases that are hosted on Server1
– Changes to Database1 must not affect the performance of queries that are stored in other databases.
– The solution must minimize administrative effort.

You need to remove the data from the procedure cache as quickly as possible.
What should you do?

A.    Run DBCC FREEPROCCACHE.
B.    Run ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION CLEAR PROCEDURE CACHE in the context of Database 1.
C.     Run DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS.
D.     Write a script that iterates through each stored procedure definition and add WITH RECOMPILE to the definition.

Continue reading →

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QUESTION 71
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You create a view that performs the following tasks:
Joins 10 tables that contain up to 400,000 records each.
Performs aggregations on 4 fields.
The view is frequently used in several detailed reports.
You need to improve the performance of the reports. What should you do?

A.    Convert the view into a table-valued function
B.    Convert the view into an indexed view
C.    Convert the view into a stored procedure and retrieve the result from the stored procedure into a temporary table
D.    Convert the view into a Common Table Expression (CTE)

Answer: B
Explanation:
The first index created on a view must be a unique clustered index. After the unique clustered index has been created, you can create more nonclustered indexes. Creating a unique clustered index on a view improves query performance because the view is stored in the database in the same way a table with a clustered index is stored. The query optimizer may use indexed views to speed up the query execution. The view does not have to be referenced in the query for the optimizer to consider that view for a substitution.

QUESTION 72
Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?
JSON is not a built-in data type in SQL Server 2016, and SQL Server 2016 does not have custom JSON indexes?

A.    TRUE
B.    FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 73
The !> operator is a comparison operator that compares two expressions.
However, if ANSI_NULLS is set to ON and one of the operands is NULL, what will the result be?

expression !> expression (NULL)

A.    FALSE
B.    0
C.    TRUE
D.    NULL

Answer: D
Explanation:
If either or both operands are NULL and SET ANSI_NULLS is set to ON, the result is NULL. If SET ANSI_NULLS is set to OFF, the result is FALSE if one of the operands is NULL, and TRUE if both operands are NULL.

QUESTION 74
You are developing a SQL Server database that contains a heap named OrdersArchive.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:

INSERT INTO OrdersArchive
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders

You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement.
Which table hint should you use?

A.    HOLDLOCK
B.    TABLOCK
C.    XLOCK
D.    ROWLOCK

Answer: B
Explanation:
Table hints override the default behavior of the query optimizer for the duration of the data manipulation language (DML) statement by specifying a locking method, one or more indexes, a query-processing operation such as a table scan or index seek, or other options. Table hints are specified in the FROM clause of the DML statement and affect only the table or view referenced in that clause.
When importing data into a heap by using the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM statement, you can enable optimized logging and locking for the statement by specifying the TABLOCK hint for the target table. In addition, the recovery model of the database must be set to simple or bulk- logged.

QUESTION 75
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A database has two tables as shown in the following database diagram:

751

You need to list all provinces that have at least two large cities.
A large city is defined as having a population of at least one million residents.
The query must return the following columns:

752

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

753

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirement to list all provinces that have at least two large cities is meet by the WHERE CitySummary.LargeCityCount >=2 clause.
CROSS APPLY will work fine here.
Note:
The APPLY operator allows you to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by an outer table expression of a query. The table-valued function acts as the right input and the outer table expression acts as the left input. The right input is evaluated for each row from the left input and the rows produced are combined for the final output. The list of columns produced by the APPLY operator is the set of columns in the left input followed by the list of columns returned by the right input.
There are two forms of APPLY: CROSS APPLY and OUTER APPLY. CROSS APPLY returns only rows from the outer table that produce a result set from the table-valued function. OUTER APPLY returns both rows that produce a result set, and rows that do not, with NULL values in the columns produced by the table-valued function.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 76
You create a table named Products.Sales by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

CREATE TABLE Products.Sales (
SalesId int IDENTIFY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY,
SalesDate DateTime NOT NULL,
SalesAmount decimal(18,2) NULL
)

You add the following data to the table.

761

You are developing a report to display monthly sales data.
You need to create a Transact-SQL query to meet the following requirements:

– Retrieve a column for the year followed by a column for each month from January through December.
– Include the total sales amount for each month.
– Aggregate columns by year, month, and then amount.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:

– Use the MONTH keyword as the interval when using the DATANAME function.
– Do not modify the provided IN clause.
– Do not surround object names with square brackets.
– Do not use implicit joins.
– Do not use the DATEPART function.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

1. SELECT * FROM
2. (SELECT YEAR(SalesData)) AS Year, DATENAME (MONTH, SalesDate) AS Month,
SalesAmount AS Amount
3.
4. ) AS MonthlySalesData
5.
6. FOR Month IN (January, February, March, April, May, June, July, August, September,
October, November, December))
AS MonthNamePivot

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A.    Pending

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Note: This question ts part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016.
The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows image.
You need to deploy 10 Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users.
Solution: You deploy one physical computer and configure it as a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016.
You create 10 virtual machines and configure each one as a PAW.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

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QUESTION 111
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?

A.    From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B.    From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C.    From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D.    From IPv4, create a new filter.
E.    From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F.    From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G.    From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
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QUESTION 334
You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

A.    SPAN
B.    traffic map
C.    tcpdump
D.    atomic counters Continue reading →